Ok... $a_n$ tends to 0 because:
- it's a succession of the type $a_(n+1)=f(a_n)$, with $f(x)=(2x^2)/(1+x)$, wich is a monotone increasing function... the solutions of the equation $f(x)=x$ are 0 and 1, furthermore $f(a_0)<a_0$ because $0<a_0<1$... this is sufficient for concluding that the succession tends to 0 thanks to the theory;
done that, I'd like somebody to compute that limit for me!
... (it's simply the limit of $a_(n+1)/a_(n)$)... if it tends to $1^(+)$ the sum diverges, if it tends to $a<1$, it converges, if it tends to 1^(-), well... I hope it doesn't!...